Question about preaching Christ in the OT

Imagine you are preparing a sermon or teaching from the book of 1 or 2 Samuel and the statement comes up:

“If a rabbi could preach your sermon, you will have not taught it as you should.”

Would you agree or disagree?  Why?

3 responses to “Question about preaching Christ in the OT

  1. I would definitely agree (unless he was a Messianic Rabbi :-). I attempt to preach Christ (and I appreciated your Trinitarian comments that I heartily agree with), because he is the one sent into the world to redeem it. He is, after all, the point of Israel’s story as I understand it. And I actually spent a year and a half preaching through 1-2 Samuel (and then another year and a half through 1-2 Kings and now the last 9 months through Ezekiel)…and throughout it all I have continued weekly to point my folks to Jesus the Christ through it all, but we have also weekly discussed the working of the Spirit and the will of the Father. I believe they have been blessed through it all (I know I have).

  2. Luther’s OT hermeneutic was preach Christ the Christological centre, and apply the exegesis or interpretation toward the individual, called to covenant. Also Luther said Christian theology generally is the praise and adoration of God. God is to be praised and loved for his own sake and not for the sake of his benefits. As the theologian begins with the praise of God, so must the preacher and interpreter of the biblical text. Dominus delit etc.

    Yes, the forgotten Luther!

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