Philippians 1:29

reads:

ὅτι ὑμῖν ἐχαρίσθη τὸ ὑπὲρ Χριστοῦ, οὐ μόνον τὸ εἰς αὐτὸν πιστεύειν ἀλλὰ καὶ τὸὑπὲρ αὐτοῦ πάσχειν,

For to you it has been granted for Christ’s sake, not only to believe in Him, but also to suffer for His sake…. (NASB)

questions:

yes or no?

and if so, how so?

what would suffering look like for those in affluent societies?

Thanks

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